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66. The activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop and retain an effective workforce are
called
A. personnel development.
B. contingency planning.
C. human resource management.
D. job analysis.
E. performance appraisal.
C
67. The strategic human resource management process includes which of these?
A. Plan financial resources needed
B. Identify social capital
C. Establish the grand strategy
D. Investigate competitive job positions
E. Correct underperformance
C
68. What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process?
A. Plan future human resources needs
B. Perform appraisals of people
C. Assess success of recruitment process
D. Orient, train and develop people
E. Recruit and select people
B
69. The economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions is called
A. human capital.
B. labor capital.
C. social capital.
D. potential capital.
E. productivity capital.
A
70. The economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships is called
A. relational capital.
B. social capital.
C. personal capital.
D. productivity capital.
E. human capital.
B
71. The purpose of the strategic human resource process is to
A. maintain a stable workforce for the minimum expense.
B. inform the grand strategy.
C. formulate human resource-sensitive strategic plans.
D. find the human resources needed in a timely fashion.
E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision.
E
72. A specialist at UPS that rides with couriers to learn about delivery times and potential problems is
conducting a job
A. posting.
B. specification.
C. analysis.
D. description.
E. rotation
C
73. A ______ describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform a job successfully.
A. job specification
B. realistic job preview
C. job description
D. job analysis
E. performance appraisal
A
74. Gabriella had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly twenty years, so when
she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed. Before she left, Laura sat with her for two
weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions. Laura was performing a
A. behavioral-description interview.
B. performance appraisal.
C. informal appraisal.
D. job analysis.
E. job rotation.
D
75. In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future, human resource managers should
A. focus efforts on replacing those that retire or resign.
B. assume that the organization will not change much.
C.
assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the organization's
jobs, so planning here must be deferred.
D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them.
E. hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth.
D
76. A report listing your organization's employees by name, education, training, languages, and other
important information is called a(n)
A. human resource inventory.
B. labor inventory.
C. skills inventory.
D. personnel inventory.
E. employee inventory.
A
77. Adam, an HR manager, was using reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S. Census
Bureau for information about his industry's labor pool in his geographic area. Adam is planning to
A. perform a job analysis.
B. recruit from inside the organization.
C. analyze human capital.
D. develop an affirmative action program.
E. recruit from outside the organization.
E
78. Passed in 1935, the ______ Act resulted in the National Labor Relations Board.
A. Wagner
B. Social Security
C. Taft-Hartley
D. Occupational Safety and Health
E. Civil Rights
A
79. Which piece of legislation first established the U.S. federal minimum wage?
A. Wagner Act
B. Social Security Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act
E. Civil Rights Act
C
80. The ______ Act established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
A. Equal Pay
B. Wagner
C. Social Security
D. Occupational Safety and Health
E. Civil Rights
e
81. Which of the following protects employees who raise accusations of fraud to a federal agency?
A. Privacy Act
B. Civil Rights Act
C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
E. Polygraph Protection Act
d
. The law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination is the
A. Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act (HIPAA)
B. Social Security Act
C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act
E. Civil Rights Act
c
83. Which of the following requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance?
A. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
B. Occupational Safety and Health Act
C. Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Social Security Act
E. Patient Protection & Affordable Care Act
e
84. Which of the following permits suits against employers for punitive damages in cases of intentional
discrimination?
A. Civil Rights Act
B. Equal Pay Act
C. Americans with Disabilities Act
D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
a
85. Peter has a degenerative eye disease that is causing him to gradually lose his eyesight. When he asked
his employer to purchase him a low vision computer for use at work, he was instead let go. This violates
provisions of the
A. Civil Rights Act, Title VII.
B. Patient Protection & Affordable Care Act.
C. Occupational Safety & Health Act (OSHA).
D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
E. Privacy Act.
d
86. ______ occurs when people are hired or promoted—or denied hiring or promotion—for reasons not
relevant to the job.
A. Affirmative action
B. Discrimination
C. A hiring quota
D. Quid pro quo
E. A hostile work environment
b
87. After being referred by a friend, Shabina attended a job interview. She didn't feel it went well, but was
surprised when her friend told her the boss didn't like that she had worn her hijab, a traditional headscarf,
saying "our customers prefer working with Christians". This is an example of
A. affirmative action.
B. quid pro quo.
C. discrimination.
D. hostile work environment.
E. favoritism.
c
88. Management at Perry Architecture wanted to raise the levels of minorities and women in its ranks. So, the
company began an active recruitment program with a local university, and a special career development
program as well. Perry has started a(n) ______ plan.
A. reverse discrimination
B. equality
C. civil rights
D. preferential treatment
E. affirmative action
e
89. Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
A. A hostile work environment brings with it tangible economic harm.
B.
The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not know about the
situation.
C.
A person who feels he/she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his/her job is facing
a quid pro quo.
D. Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment.
E. Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.
c
90. Lauren worked in a distribution warehouse for a power tool company. Throughout the building, there
were posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature, and they made Lauren very uncomfortable. This
is
A. a quid pro quo harassment.
B. not of legal concern because none of the offensive materials are directed at Lauren.
C. sexual discrimination.
D. not of legal concern because Lauren is not suffering any economic injury.
E. a hostile work environment.
e
91. The process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization is called
A. enlisting.
B. selection.
C. hiring.
D. recruiting.
E. job posting.
d
92. Placing information about job vacancies and qualifications in places where employees can see them such
as on bulletin boards or the company's intranet is called
A. job analysis.
B. realistic job previewing.
C. position advertising.
D. recruiting.
E. job posting.
e
93. Which of the following external recruiting methods works best?
A. Private employment agencies
B. Employee referrals
C. Newspaper ads
D. College recruiters
E. Unions
b
94. Which of the following is true of external recruiting, compared to internal recruiting?
A. It encourages greater employee loyalty.
B. The process is cheaper.
C. The pool of talent is more limited.
D. It creates the need for multiple recruitments.
E. The process takes longer.
e
95. When Javier became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large medical supply
company, the director of the department scheduled a special meeting with him. There, the two talked
about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position, as well as the great compensation
and multiple perks. Javier appreciated that the director took time to conduct a
A. behavioral-description interview.
B. realistic job preview.
C. unstructured interview.
D. situational interview.
E. performance appraisal.
b
96. Which of the following statements about background information is FALSE?
A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees.
B. The most prevalent distortion in a resume is lying about education.
C. Many employers don't give honest assessments of former employees.
D. People sometimes attempt to cover gaps in employment history.
E. People lie about their ages in their application information.
a
97. The type of interview that is most likely to cause managers problems because of its potential for bias and
questionable legality is the
A. realistic job preview.
B. unstructured interview.
C. performance interview.
D. situational interview.
E. behavioral description interview.
b
98. Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews?
A. Ask about the candidate's family to show personal interest.
B. The resume should be used for selection of interview candidates only; ignore it thereafter.
C.
Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company and its
culture.
D. Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate.
E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.
e
99. In an interview Gabe asked Danielle to tell him about a time when she was able to overcome some sort of
adversity. Gabe is conducting a(n)
A. realistic job preview.
B. performance interview.
C. situational interview.
D. behavioral description interview.
E. unstructured interview.
d
100.Which of the following is NOT considered, legally, to be an employment test?
A. Personality tests
B. Interviews
C. Job analyses
D. Application forms
E. Educational requirements
c
101.The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is considered a ______ test.
A. ability
B. character
C. performance
D. personality
E. reliability
d
102.When Greg interviewed for a position as an entry-level structural engineer, he was asked to solve several
engineering problems by hand. This is an example of a(n)
A. ability test.
B. performance test.
C. aptitude test.
D. personality test.
E. capability test
b
103.The degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently is known as its
A. legality.
B. reliability.
C. validity.
D. significance.
E. dependability
b
104.______ refers to educating ______ employees in skills needed to do their jobs in the future.
A. Training; technical and operational
B. Development; technical and operational
C. Training; managerial and professional
D. Development; managerial and professional
E. Orientation; seasoned
d
105.Tracy, an HR manager, had a meeting with the director of operations to determine if the new training
program appears to be effective in improving productivity on the shop floor. Tracy is performing which
step of the training process?
A. Assessment
B. Objectives
C. Selection
D. Implementation
E. Evaluation
e
106.Which of the following training and development methods is most appropriate when people just need to
learn facts such as work rules or legal matters?
A. Videotapes
B. Role plays
C. Practice work
D. Discussion
E. Coaching
a
107.Tomiko, an HR manager, is designing a training class for those working on various cross-functional
teams within her company. This class that is aimed at improving group decision making. What method of
delivery should she choose?
A. Lectures
B. Role plays
C. Workbooks
D. Videotapes
E. Computer-aided training
b
108.Which of the following is an on-the-job training method?
A. Role playing
B. Videotapes
C. Job rotation
D. Classroom programs
E. Computer-assisted instruction
c
109.Which of the following is a form of off-the-job training?
A. Planned work activities
B. Classroom instruction
C. Training positions
D. Job rotation
E. Coaching
b
110.Performance appraisal consists of
A. managerial and peer feedback.
B. setting standards and monitoring performance.
C. assessing performance and providing feedback.
D. motivating and counseling.
E. motivating and monitoring performance
c
111.MBO is consistent with a(n) ______ performance appraisal.
A. subordinate
B. trait
C. BARS
D. objective
E. behavioral
d
112.Sandra is conducting performance appraisals of members of her sales team. The report is quite simple;
she compares each person's sales on a quarterly basis to the goal for that quarter. Sandra is using a(n)
______ system of appraisal.
A. objective
B. behavioral
C. trait
D. informal
E. 360-degree
a
113.The type of performance appraisal that consists of ratings of subjective attributes like attitude or
leadership is a(n) ______ appraisal.
A. objective
B. trait
C. behavioral
D. self
E. 360-degree
b
114.The type of performance appraisal that judges specific, observable aspects of performance like being on
time for work is a(n) ______ appraisal
A. results
B. objective
C. trait
D. behavioral
E. MBO
d
115.Viviana is conducting a performance appraisal for Jeff, one of her subordinates. The company's
performance appraisal form asks her to rate Jeff's performance on various items like "Turns in reports
on time with minimal errors." on a scale from 1 to 5. Viviana's company has a(n) ______ appraisal
system.
A. results
B. objective
C. trait
D. BARS
E. MBO
115. d
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