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1. What is the definition of marginal weather? 15-15
When the following forecast weather conditions exist, a second alternate is required: Airport Ceiling Visibility Destination Equal to authorized HAA/HAT OR Equal to authorized visibility requirement AND First Alternate Equal to derived ceiling minimums OR Equal to derived visibility minimums HAA = Height Above Airport, HAT = Height Above Touchdown
2. Where would a pilot be notified that a flight was being dispatched under exemption 3585? 15-20
In the remarks section of the dispatch release
3. If being dispatched to a destination using exemption 3585 how many alternates must be listed? 15-16
Two
4. What are the weather requirements for using exemption 3585? 15-17
Forecast Destination 1st Alternate 2nd Alternate Main Body At or above landing minimums (visibility only) At or above alternate minimums (visibility and ceiling) Conditional Statement At or above ½ of landing minimums (visibility only) At or above ½ of alternate minimums (visibility and ceiling) At or above alternate minimums (visibility and ceiling)
5. For the purposes of takeoff and landing what visibility reports are controlling? 15-21
RVR, runway visibility value (RVV), or runway visibility by observer (RVO) on the runway to be used is controlling when such reports are available
6. Is takeoff or landing authorized when the braking action is reported as less than “poor”? 15- 30
No
7. What criteria are used when calculating derived alternate minimums? 15-32
Navigational Facility Configuration Type Approach Height Increment Visibility Increment One Navigational Facility Straight-in (Precision or Non- Precision), or Circling Add 400ft to MDA(H) or DA(H) as applicable Add 1sm or 1600 meters to the landing minimum Two Navigational Facilities Straight-in (Precision or Non- Precision), to two different suitable runways Add 200 feet to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two approaches used Add ½ SM or 800 meters to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches used DA(H) = Decision Altitude, MDA(H) = Minimum Descent Altitude
8. What defines a “suitable” runway for the purposes of determining derived alternate minimums? 15-31
“Suitable” means a runway of required length, taking into consideration the forecast winds at the ETA (may be the same strip, but opposing ends)
9. Do high minimum PIC restrictions apply to determining landing minimums for a takeoff alternate requirement? 15-33
Yes
10. What are some examples of types of alternates? 15-34 – 15-35
• 1-2-3 rule alternate • Wind alternate • Drift-down alternate • Braking action alternate
11. If you depart from a non-controlled airport VFR when should you pick up a clearance from ATC once airborne? 15-48
The Flight Crew must obtain an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but no farther than 50 NM from the departure airport
12. When is a dispatch release required? 15-56
• All Company scheduled, originating flights operated under 14 CFR Part 121 • A continuation flight at any intermediate station after a ground time of more than 1 hour for domestic operations and more than 6 hours for flag operations
13. As per company policy can a pilot depart on any company issued flight without a dispatch release? 15-81
No. Although not required for nonrevenue operations conducted under 14 CFR Part 91 (repositioning flights, maintenance ferries, training flights, demonstration flights or Company business), a dispatch release is required, per Company policy
14. What items are required to be on a dispatch release? 15-86
• Aircraft identification number • Trip or flight number and date of flight • Departure, destination, alternate airports and any intermediate stops • The type of operation (i.e., instrument flight rules (IFR), visual flight rules (VFR), etc.) • The minimum fuel supply required for the flight • ATC computer flight plan
15. How long after the departure time does a dispatch release remain valid? 15-59
60 min past the Estimated Time of Departure (ETD)
16. If a dispatch release has “expired” how may the PIC amend it to make it valid again? 15-59
Contact dispatch to obtain a new valid departure time, then include time and initials on the release next to the new ETD
17. When is a new dispatch release required? 15-61
• Before a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than 1 hour • Any time a flight remains at the airport for more than 1 hour at an intermediate airport (does not apply to originating flights) • When an aircraft returns to the station of last departure after becoming airborne • When an MEL/CDL is added (that was not on the original dispatch release) or cleared from the aircraft • Flight number changes • Aircraft changes • Amended or updated Terminal Area Forecast (TAF) (if aircraft is still at the gate) that requires the addition of a destination alternate • Before departing any station where an unscheduled landing is made • If the flight is unable to depart in accordance with the dispatch release previously issued by the Dispatcher • If both Flight Crewmembers are changed on the original release • When the Pilot In Command requests a change to the dispatch release before departure
18. Weather decision factors for dispatch of a domestic flight (15-95):
19. Where would dispatch inform the pilot that the aircraft has been placed on derivative power (SAAB ONLY)? 15-96
In the remarks section of the dispatch release
20. What is the standard fuel burn that dispatch uses for flight planning? 15-100
• Saab 340: 1200 lbs/hr • Q400: 2600 lbs/hr
21. When would a flight crew attach the designator “Lifeguard” to their call sign with ATC? 15-109
When carrying urgently needed lifesaving medical materials or vital human organs. This designation results in ATC priority handling, but does NOT constitute an emergency declaration
22. What personnel are allowed on board during an Operational Check Flight (OCF)? 15-118
• Pilot In Command and Second In Command
• Crewmembers are limited to those necessary for flight. This may include Company
technicians for monitoring, observing and recording the operation of flight controls or
system functions not readily observable by the Flight Crew
• When necessary, Non-Company personnel may be on board for an OCF as observers.
Examples of Non-Company personnel who may be necessary as observers are aircraft
manufacturer and/or aircraft engine representatives
23. Does a Weight and Balance form need to be completed before an Operation Check Flight (OCF)? 15-118
Yes
24. What two items are required before a flight can “Over-Fly” a station with no revenue on or off? 15-127
• Dispatcher approval • Amendment to the flight release
25. Who should the PIC contact prior to initiating a diversion to an alternate airport? 15-128
Dispatch
26. What types of information does ACARS allow dispatch to communicate to flight crews
(Q400 ONLY)? 15-150
• Weather updates
• Release amendment information
• PIREPs
• NOTAMs, etc.
27. Who is allowed to declare an emergency for a given flight? 15-158
Both the PIC and the dispatcher for the flight (if unable to contact the PIC)
28. Within how many days after declaring an emergency must a written report to the administrator be filed? 15-158
10 days (after returning to his/her home base)
29. Does the carriage of human organs require flight crew notification? 15-109
No, unless their packaging contains dry ice
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